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Exam Code: E22-290
Exam Name: EMC (EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted
copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault
They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate
headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected
through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security
as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to
allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the
Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

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NO.3 An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives,
and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes
Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

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NO.4 Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In
the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

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NO.6 When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers
provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does the term "compression factor" refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How
would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

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NO.11 A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system
tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using
CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named "bkp001" has been created on the Data Domain
system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain
systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The
Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-918
Exam Name: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.2 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.4 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.5 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.8 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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NO.9 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.11 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.12 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

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NO.13 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.14 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.15 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-007
Exam Name: EMC (Data Science and Big Data Analytics)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
You decide to run the association rules algorithm where minimum support is 50%. Which rule has a
confidence at least 50%?
A. {cheese} => {bread}
B. {juice} => {cheese}
C. {milk} => {soda}
D. {soda} => {milk}
Answer: A

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NO.2 A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the
Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Na ve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
Answer: A

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NO.3 In R, functions like plot() and hist() are known as what?
A. generic functions
B. virtual methods
C. virtual functions
D. generic methods
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the R code
z <- f[1:10, ]
do?
A. Assigns the first 10 rows of f to the vector z
B. Assigns the 1st 10 columns of the 1st row of f to z
C. Assigns a sequence of values from 1 to 10 to z
D. Assigns the 1st 10 columns to z
Answer: A

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NO.5 In data visualization, what is used to focus the audience on a key part of a chart?
A. Emphasis colors
B. Detailed text
C. Pastel colors
D. A data table
Answer: A

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NO.6 Consider a database with 4 transactions:
Transaction 1: {cheese, bread, milk}
Transaction 2: {soda, bread, milk}
Transaction 3: {cheese, bread}
Transaction 4: {cheese, soda, juice}
The minimum support is 25%. Which rule has a confidence equal to 50%?
A. {bread,milk} => {cheese}
B. {bread} => {milk}
C. {juice} => {soda}
D. {bread} => {cheese}
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are using the Apriori algorithm to determine the likelihood that a person who owns a home has a
good credit score. You have determined that the confidence for the rules used in the algorithm is > 75%.
You calculate lift = 1.011 for the rule, "People with good credit are homeowners". What can you determine
from the lift calculation?
A. Support for the association is low
B. Leverage of the rules is low
C. The rule is coincidental
D. The rule is true
Answer: C

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NO.8 When would you use GROUP BY ROLLUP clause in your OLAP query?
A. where all subtotals and grand totals are to be included in the output
B. where only the subtotals are to be included in the output
C. where only the grand totals are to be included in the output
D. where only specific subtotals and grand totals for a combination of variables are to be included in the
output
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your colleague, who is new to Hadoop, approaches you with a question. They want to know how best
to access their data. This colleague has a strong background in data flow languages and programming.
Which query interface would you recommend?
A. Pig
B. Hive
C. Howl
D. HBase
Answer: A

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NO.10 What would be considered "Big Data"?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100,000,000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100,000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which type of numeric value does a logistic regression model estimate?
A. Probability
B. A p-value
C. Any integer
D. Any real number
Answer: A

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NO.12 The web analytics team uses Hadoop to process access logs. They now want to correlate this data
with structured user data residing in a production single-instance JDBC database. They collaborate with
the production team to import the data into Hadoop. Which tool should they use?
A. Sqoop
B. Pig
C. Chukwa
D. Scribe
Answer: A

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NO.13 Under which circumstance do you need to implement N-fold cross-validation after creating a
regression model?
A. There is not enough data to create a test set.
B. The data is unformatted.
C. There are missing values in the data.
D. There are categorical variables in the model.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which word or phrase completes the statement? Data-ink ratio is to data visualization as __________ .
A. Confusion matrix is to classifier
B. Data scientist is to big data
C. Seasonality is to ARIMA
D. K-means is to Naive Bayes
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for an analyst audience?
A. Pie chart
B. Area chart
C. Stacked bar chart
D. ROC curve
Answer: D

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NO.16 When creating a presentation for a technical audience, what is the main objective?
A. Show that you met the project goals
B. Show how you met the project goals
C. Show if the model will meet the SLA
D. Show the technique to be used in the production environment
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data.?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
Answer: A

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NO.18 In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return?
SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your company has 3 different sales teams. Each team's sales manager has developed incentive offers
to increase the size of each sales transaction. Any sales manager whose incentive program can be
shown to increase the size of the average sales transaction will receive a bonus.
Data are available for the number and average sale amount for transactions offering one of the incentives
as well as transactions offering no incentive.
The VP of Sales has asked you to determine analytically if any of the incentive programs has resulted in a
demonstrable increase in the average sale amount. Which analytical technique would be appropriate in
this situation?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Multi-way ANOVA
C. Student's t-test
D. Wilcoxson Rank Sum Test
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (E20-385 Data Domain Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is indicated by a flashing green SAS state LED on an EMC Data Domain ES20 SAS
controller?
A.Connection problem
B.Connection established
C. RAID reconstruction in progress
D.Connection in process
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which cabling path is used to connect an existing EMC Data Doman ES20 expansion shelf to a
new ES20 shelf?
A. Existing Expansion Shelf EXP'N port => New Expansion Shelf HOST port
B. Existing Expansion Shelf HOST port => New Expansion Shelf EXP'N port
C. Existing Expansion Shelf HOST port => New Expansion Shelf HOST port
D. Existing Expansion Shelf EXP'N port => New Expansion Shelf EXP'N port
Answer: A

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NO.3 An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates
encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite
vault.They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system in a hosted disaster recovery
site as a replication target. This will replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites are connected
through an encrypted WAN link. Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems
to ensure a similar level of data security as their current process?
A.Use encryption of data in flight to the hosted disaster recovery site
B.Enable encryption of data at rest at the disaster recovery site
C.Enable encryption of data at rest at the source site
D. WAN link between the sites is already encrypted
Answer: B

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NO.4 When connecting EMC Data Domain expansion shelves, what should be done to avoid cable
stress at the solder joints of the connector?
A. Keep the ambient temperature at an acceptable level
B. Use screw lock assemblies
C. Leave enough cable to allow for free air flow
D. Secure the cable to the rack door
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates
encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite
vault.
They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their
corporate headquarters as a replication target to replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites
are connected through the Internet. Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain
systems to ensure a similar level of data security as achieved by their current process?
A. Encrypt the replication context
B. Encrypt the data at rest
C. Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D. Encryption is not required
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which method of deduplication yields better deduplication results for multiple data types?
A. Variable segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a variable segment and move
the data stream.
B. Fixed segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment without having
to move the data stream.
C. Fixed segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment and move the
data stream.
D. Variable segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a variable segment without
having to move the data stream.
Answer: D,A

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NO.7 What is a component of the EMC Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture that protects
against data loss?
A.File system recoverability
B. Summary vector identification
C. System sanitization
D.Segment locality processing
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have implemented an EMC Data Domain system with directory replication. After
replication has occurred, the customer notices that the space utilization on the source and
destination systems is different. How can this be explained?
A.Difference in global compression
B. Difference in the encryption algorithm
C. CIFS/NFS is mixed on the same directory
D. Destination directory may be corrupted
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are implementing an EMC Data Domain system at a location that is not staffed.
However, the customer has network connectivity to the site from the main data center.
In the event of a system crash, what can be configured to allow the customer the ability
to cycle power?
A. Serial over LAN
B. SNMP
C. IPMI
D. Replication
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is interested in deploying DD Boost for their current EMC Data Domain system.
They are aware of Distributed Segment Processing (DSP) and want to know the data flow when they
enable DSP . What describes the data flow from the backup host to the Data Domain system?
A. Segmenting, fingerprinting, and compression occur on the backup host. Fingerprint filtering and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
B. Segmenting, fingerprinting, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host. Compression and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
C. Fingerprinting, compression, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host. Segmenting and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
D. Segmenting, fingerprinting, fingerprint filtering, and compression occur on the backup host.
Writes occur on the Data Domain.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 412-79
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Security Analyst (ECSA))
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 .In a virtual test environment, Michael is testing the strength and security of BGP using multiple routers
to mimic the backbone of the Internet. This project will help him write his doctoral thesis on "bringing down
the Internet". Without sniffing the traffic between the routers, Michael sends millions of RESET packets to
the routers in an attempt to shut one or all of them down. After a few hours, one of the routers finally shuts
itself down. What will the other routers communicate between themselves?
A. More RESET packets to the affected router to get it to power back up
B. RESTART packets to the affected router to get it to power back up
C. The change in the routing fabric to bypass the affected router
D. STOP packets to all other routers warning of where the attack originated
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning?
A. Windows computers are constantly talking
B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking
C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise
D. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans
Answer: A

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NO.3 George is performing security analysis for Hammond and Sons LLC. He is testing security vulnerabilities
of their wireless network. He plans on remaining as "stealthy" as possible during the scan. Why would a
scanner like Nessus is not recommended in this situation?
A. Nessus is too loud
B. There are no ways of performing a "stealthy" wireless scan
C. Nessus cannot perform wireless testing
D. Nessus is not a network scanner
Answer: A

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NO.4 .What operating system would respond to the following command?
A. Mac OS X
B. Windows XP
C. Windows 95
D. FreeBSD
Answer: D

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NO.5 .You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has
many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database.
You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on
web pages to check for vulnerabilities:
This is a test
When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says:
"This is a test."
What is the result of this test?
A. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs
B. Your website is vulnerable to CSS
C. Your website is not vulnerable
D. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to
hack into his former company's network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts
to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here?
A. Enumerate all the users in the domain
B. Perform DNS poisoning
C. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers
D. Perform a zone transfer
Answer: D

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NO.7 .What is the following command trying to accomplish?
A. Verify that NETBIOS is running for the 192.168.0.0 network
B. Verify that TCP port 445 is open for the 192.168.0.0 network
C. Verify that UDP port 445 is open for the 192.168.0.0 network
D. Verify that UDP port 445 is closed for the 192.168.0.0 network
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Your company's network just finished going through a SAS 70 audit. This audit reported that overall,
your network is secure, but there are some areas that needs improvement. The major area was SNMP
security. The audit company recommended turning off SNMP, but that is not an option since you have so
many remote nodes to keep track of. What step could you take to help secure SNMP on your network?
A. Change the default community string names
B. Block all internal MAC address from using SNMP
C. Block access to UDP port 171
D. Block access to TCP port 171
Answer: A

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NO.9 .An "idle" system is also referred to as what?
A. Zombie
B. PC not being used
C. Bot
D. PC not connected to the Internet
Answer: A

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NO.10 .At what layer of the OSI model do routers function on?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.11 .Your company uses Cisco routers exclusively throughout the network. After securing the routers to
the best of your knowledge, an outside security firm is brought in to assess the network security. Although
they found very few issues, they were able to enumerate the model, OS version, and capabilities for all
your Cisco routers with very little effort. Which feature will you disable to eliminate the ability to enumerate
this information on your Cisco routers?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol
B. Broadcast System Protocol
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. Border Gateway Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.12 .You are running known exploits against your network to test for possible vulnerabilities. To test the
strength of your virus software, you load a test network to mimic your production network. Your software
successfully blocks some simple macro and encrypted viruses. You decide to really test the software by
using virus code where the code rewrites itself entirely and the signatures change
6 from child to child, but the functionality stays the same. What type of virus is this that you are testing?
A. Metamorphic
B. Oligomorhic
C. Polymorphic
D. Transmorphic
Answer: A

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NO.13 .You are assisting a Department of Defense contract company to become compliant with the stringent
security policies set by the DoD. One such strict rule is that firewalls must only allow incoming
connections that were first initiated by internal computers. What type of firewall must you implement to
abide by this policy?
A. Circuit-level proxy firewall
B. Packet filtering firewall
C. Application-level proxy firewall
D. Statefull firewall
Answer: D

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NO.14 .What are the security risks of running a "repair" installation for Windows XP?
A. There are no security risks when running the "repair" installation for Windows XP
B. Pressing Shift+F1gives the user administrative rights
C. Pressing Ctrl+F10 gives the user administrative rights
D. Pressing Shift+F10 gives the user administrative rights
Answer: D

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NO.15 .Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning?
A. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans
B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking
C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise
D. Windows computers are constantly talking
Answer: D

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NO.16 .What will the following command accomplish?
A. Test ability of a router to handle over-sized packets
B. Test the ability of a router to handle fragmented packets
C. Test the ability of a WLAN to handle fragmented packets
D. Test the ability of a router to handle under-sized packets
Answer: A

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NO.17 .How many bits is Source Port Number in TCP Header packet?
A. 48
B. 32
C. 64
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.18 .You are the security analyst working for a private company out of France. Your current assignment is
to obtain credit card information from a Swiss bank owned by that company. After initial reconnaissance,
you discover that the bank security defenses are very strong and would take too long to penetrate. You
decide to get the information by monitoring the traffic between the bank and one of its subsidiaries in
London. After monitoring some of the traffic, you see a lot of FTP packets traveling back and forth. You
want to sniff the traffic and extract usernames and passwords. What tool could you use to get this
information?
A. RaidSniff
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. Airsnort
Answer: C

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NO.19 .After attending a CEH security seminar, you make a list of changes you would like to perform on your
network to increase its security. One of the first things you change is to switch the RestrictAnonymous
setting from 0 to 1 on your servers. This, as you were told, would prevent anonymous users from
establishing a null session on the server. Using Userinfo tool mentioned at the seminar, you succeed in
establishing a null session with one of the servers. Why is that?
A. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "2" for complete security
B. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "3" for complete security
C. There is no way to always prevent an anonymous null session from establishing
D. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "10" for complete security
Answer: A

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NO.20 .George is the network administrator of a large Internet company on the west coast. Per corporate
policy, none of the employees in the company are allowed to use FTP or SFTP programs without
obtaining approval from the IT department. Few managers are using SFTP program on their computers.
Before talking to his boss, George wants to have some proof of their activity.
George wants to use Ethereal to monitor network traffic, but only SFTP traffic to and from his network.
What filter should George use in Ethereal?
A. net port 22
B. udp port 22 and host 172.16.28.1/24
C. src port 22 anddst port 22
D. src port 23 anddst port 23
Answer: C

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Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following Wi-Fi chalking methods refers to drawing symbols in public places to
advertise open Wi-Fi networks?
A. WarWalking
B. WarFlying
C. WarChalking
D. WarDhving
Answer: C

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NO.2 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.3 Networks are vulnerable to an attack which occurs due to overextension of bandwidth,
bottlenecks, network data interception, etc.
Which of the following network attacks refers to a process in which an attacker changes his or her
IP address so that he or she appears to be someone else?
A. IP address spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Session sniffing
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is not a part of securing and evaluating electronic crime
scene
checklist?
A. Locate and help the victim
B. Transmit additional flash messages to other responding units
C. Request additional help at the scene if needed
D. Blog about the incident on the internet
Answer: D

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NO.5 When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from
the
most volatile to the least volatile
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PW0-105
Exam Name: CWNP (Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose
4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.2 In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for
unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver's antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is
clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency
and distance.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What statement best describes the manual RF site survey report?
A. It is a series of notes taken during the interview with the network manager and given to the site survey
project manager.
B. It is a one-page network inspection summary used to create a certificate of network compliance.
C. It contains the results from the RF coverage, capacity, and interference analysis.
D. It is an internal document used by the site surveying firm for network deployment, and is not usually
shown to the client.
E. It states the customer requirements, business justification, and a detailed budget for the WLAN.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre-deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC's facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC's existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company's security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a
single access point? (Choose 2)
1. SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /
VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6
2. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type A
SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B
A. Multiple WLAN Profiles
B. Call Admission Control
C. Virtual Cell with SCA
D. Access Categories
E. User-based authentication
F. Dual-radio AP hardware
G. Integrated DHCP server
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Why is it recommended for a wireless network administrator to disable 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps data rates
on the WLAN infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. To improve capacity in the BSS
B. To reduce the size of the AP's effective service area
C. To prevent 802.11b devices from associating
D. To maximize the range of the highest data rates
E. To prevent VoWiFi multicast frames
F. To enable support for long preambles
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF medium for a
specified period of time?
A. Long slot times
B. DTIM Interval
C. Listen Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E

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NO.8 Given:
ABC Company performs top-secret government contract work and has recently purchased an
802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their "NO WIRELESS" network security
policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. MAC Spoofing
C. Protocol Jamming
D. Eavesdropping
E. RF Jamming
Answer: D

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NO.9 What answers correctly complete the following sentence?
____________ and ____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine whether the wireless
medium is idle or busy. (Choose 2)
A. Passive
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 Given: You are an independent contractor, hired to perform an indoor site survey and network design
for ABC Hotel. The network will support both hotel staff and guest users. You are interviewing the network
manager to determine business, performance, and security requirements for the future 802.11 WLAN.
What questions should you ask the IT manager? (Choose two)
A. What data cabling is currently installed in the rooms and throughout the hotel?
B. How much RF loss do you expect between hotel rooms?
C. Where are the RF dead zones located within the facility?
D. What types of applications will be used by the hotel staff?
E. Are there any radar systems in use at the hotel that would conflict with the WLAN?
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Answer: D

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NO.12 Given: You were previously on-site at ABC's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The
WLAN has been deployed according to your recommendations and you are on-site again to perform a
network validation.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be
performed? (Choose two)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Hidden node analysis to identify and relocate existing hidden nodes
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher passive
gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease?
A. Beamwidth
B. Range
C. Active gain
D. Receive sensitivity
E. Fresnel Zone size
Answer: A

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NO.14 During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their
supported data rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate
that will be used to send an 802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can
request a change at any time after the association.
B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on
their own experience of the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be
used by each client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will
use and the data rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer
station, based on the peer's experience of the RF link.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes from one medium to another medium of
a different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

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NO.16 Given: You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a
wireless security seminar. The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from
potential intruders if you disabled the broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access
points not to respond to Probe Request frames that have a null SSID field.
Your manager suggests implementing these security practices. What response should you give to this
suggestion? (Choose two)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe
Response frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe
Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers' client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the
SSID cannot be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response
frames can be helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the
corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the
SSID by exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove
the SSID from association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment supporting four bands in the 5 GHz range
(UNII 1, UNII 2, UNII 2e, and UNII 3). DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory domain.
Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity.
Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi client devices will move back and forth
between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the user roams throughout the building. All APs have 2.4 and 5 GHz radios
enabled.
This "band hopping" behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable. What is the most likely cause
of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48
in UNII 1.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call
capacity and lower latency than 5 GHz.
C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it
moves through the network.
D. The client's band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85%
of client devices to 2.4 GHz.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Given:
Network users and IT personnel at a large machinery manufacturer have been discussing the potential
uses and benefits of implementing an indoor WLAN. The network administrator and network manager
have requested a meeting of senior management personnel to discuss a WLAN implementation before
taking any site survey or implementation steps. The first order of discussion in the meeting is corporate
policy concerning implementation and use of WLAN technology.
What specific topics are appropriate in this policy meeting? (Choose two)
A. Vendor hardware recommendations
B. Business justification
C. User productivity impact
D. Antenna types
E. Obtaining permits and zoning requirements
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Answer: A,D

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