2014年1月30日星期四

The latest Hitachi certification HH0-230 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HH0-230
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Code: HD0-200
Exam Name: HDI (HDI Qualified Help Desk Senior Analyst)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call
successfully?
(Choose two)
A. Create a problem-solving work-flow
B. Use the same terminology as the customer
C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken
D. Give the customer something to do
Answer: B, C.

NO.2 A help desk analyst is on the phone with Certkiller .com and does not know the solution
for the problem. What is the best technique for them to use to disengage from the call?
(Choose 1)
A. I have the information. I will get back to you as soon as possible
B. Allow me to check this further. I will call you at 10:00 with an update
C. Let me research this, I will call you back as soon as I have a resolution
D. Permit me to check with some other members of my team, I will get back to you as
soon as I review with this them
Answer: B

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NO.3 An upset, frustrated customer asks to speak to the help desk manager.
What is your most appropriate response? (Choose 1)
A. It would be easier to resolve this call if you calm down
B. I am sorry, but my manager is not available at the moment. May I get her to call you
back
C. I am sorry, but my supervisor does not handle these situations, I can assist you
D. I appreciate your frustration with this, I have experienced this same problem many
times
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three characteristics of a strategically-thinking help desk? (Choose three)
A. Transactional focus
B. Reactive focus
C. Proactive focus
D. Information giving focus
E. Integrated focus
Answer: B, C, D.

NO.5 What are the two most important purposes of an annual survey? (Choose two)
A. To assess IT technical support
B. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels
C. To identify changes customers feel are valuable
D. To measure changes in products and services from the previous year
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 Which question should you ask to best assess Certkiller .com's experience and knowledge
level? (Choose 1)
A. What is the error code you see?
B. Have you ever had this error before?
C. What were the circumstances that held to this situation?
D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator?
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They demonstrate sympathy
B. They use the customer's name
C. They avoid using verbal attends
D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words
Answer: B, D.

NO.8 Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)
A. They acknowledge the customer
B. They know the process for escalating a problem
C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding
D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two)
A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products
B. To measure the quality of a single interaction
C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services
D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys
Answer: B, D

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NO.10 What are the three best methods for building rapport among departments within
thesupport organisation? (Choose three)
A. Active Networking
B. Involvement in Project management
C. Participation in company-wide events and initiatives
D. Involvement in cross-functional teams
Answer: A, C, D.

NO.11 You are a help desk analyst and you are having difficulty understanding customer from
another country. What is the best action for you to take? (Choose 1)
A. Ask the customer if there is someone else who speaks your language more fluently
who could assist
B. Ask the customer to email you instead
C. Tell the customer you are sorry but you cannot understand him, and suggest he calls
back another time
D. Tell the customer you will send him a user manual
Answer: A

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NO.12 You think one of your help desk analysts is suffering from stress.
Which two physical signs best indicate the analyst is experiencing stress? (Choose two)
A. They have a new wardrobe of clothes
B. They seems tense and often have white knuckles
C. They bite their fingernails
D. They have a palllid complextion
E. They often seem short of breath
Answer: B, E

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NO.13 Which two business needs must be considered when allocating priorities?(Chooose two)
A. The impact on the business
B. The customers status
C. The customers location
D. Service level agreement commitments
Answer: A, D

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NO.14 When designing a help desk technology infrastructure, which two components are most
commonly included? (Choose two)
A. Interactive Voice Response
B. Web Server
C. Telephony system
D. Call logging system
Answer: C, D.

NO.15 What are two of the best ways to demonstrate confidence when on the telephone with a
customer? (Choose 1)
A. Using a confident tone, tell them you dont have a resolution for their incident yet but
you are finding out by using the knowledgebase
B. Using a confident tone, tell the customer you are new to the desk and are transferring
their call
C. Using a confident tone, ask the customer to call a 2nd line team, and provide their
telephone number
D. Using a confident tone, tell the cutomer that you are unable to help them until
tomorrow
Answer: A

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NO.16 How can the help desk be of strategic benefit to the organisation?
(Choose one)
A. It increase staff levels
B. It is a useful source of information
C. It ensures rigid adherence to opertional policies
D. It ensures that customers speak only to the help desk personnel
Answer: B

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NO.17 When communicating with Certkiller .com, it is best to avoid_______. (Choose two)
A. Apologies
B. Empathising
C. User of slang
D. Technical terms
Answer: C, D.

NO.18 What is the best description of multi-tasking? (Choose 1)
A. Delegating all responsibility along with all tasks
B. Completing one job before starting the next one
C. Starting tasks and handling them to subordinates to complete
D. Being capable of handling a variety of problems at the same time
Answer: D

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NO.19 Why is it important to record and analyse customer complaints? (Choose 1)
A. To gain insight into customer perceptions
B. To identify customers who are never satisfied
C. To prove that other IT groups are meeting customer expectations
D. To demonstrate that customers are not aware of service level agreements
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are speaking to Certkiller .com who has an incident that requires you to perform
further research before you can apply a resolution. You document the situation and the
impact.What is the best action to take next? (Choose 1)
A. Close the call
B. Develop a multi-functional team to address the situation
C. Ask your team colleagues to concentrate on this problem with you
D. Explain to the customer what will happen next
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GB0-190
Exam Name: H3C (Construction Small-and Medium-Sized Enterprise Network)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 IP 202.135.111.77 ________________
Answer:202.135.111.2554. TCP SYN Z ________
A.a
B.b
C.a+1
D.b+1
Answer:D

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5.FTP ______
A.20
B.21
C.23
D.22
Answer:B

H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190
6. ______
A.startupB.boot-loaderC.bootfileD.bootstartupAnswer:B7. MTU
MTU ______ ping
A.-a
B.-d
C.-f
D.-c
Answer:C

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8. STP BPDU
______
A.Blocking
B.Listening
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
E.Waiting
F.Disable
Answer:B

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9. STP SWA
_______ Blocking
A.SWC P1B.SWC P2C.SWD P1D.SWD P2E.
Answer:BD

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10. SWA 0 ______
A.[SWA]stppriority0
B.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stppriority0
C.[SWA]stprootpriority0
D.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stprootpriority0
Answer:A

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11.IP 10.0.10.32 255.255.255.224 ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:B

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12.IP 132.119.100.200 255.255.255.240 ______
A.132.119.100.207
B.132.119.100.255
C.132.119.100.193
D.132.119.100.223
Answer:A

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13.TFTP ______
A.67
B.68
C.69
D.53
Answer:C

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14. Windows ARP
A.displayarp
B.arp-a
C.arp-d
D.showarp
Answer:B

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15.
HostA----GE0/0--MSR-1--S1/0-----WAN-----S1/0--MSR-2--GE0/0----HostB
MSR MSR-1 S1/0 3.3.3.1/30
MSR-2 S1/0 3.3.3.2/30 MSR-1
iproute-static192.168.1.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2iproute-static192.168.2.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
192.168.0.0/22 HostB
A. MSR-1
B. MSR-1
C. iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.252.03.3.3.2
D. MSR-1
Answer:AC

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16.
A.IGP
B.OSPF
C.RIPv1
D.RIPv2
Answer:CD

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17. MSR IP GE0/0
RTA
[RTA]ospf[RTA-ospf-1]area0[RTA-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTA-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority2RTB
[RTB]ospf[RTB-ospf-1]area0[RTB-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTB-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority
OSPF ______
A.OSPF 192.168.1.0/30 OSPFDR
B. DR BDRC. DR DRotherD.
FULL 2-WayAnswer:B18.
0.0.0.0 S0/0
______
A. 120.1.1.1
B.
C. 3
D. 100
Answer:ABCD

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19. RIP MSR
<MSR>displayiprouting-table6.6.6.6RoutingTable:PublicSummaryCount:2Destination/MaskProtoPreCost
NextHopInterface6.6.6.0/24RIP1001100.1.1.1GE0/06.0.0.0/8Static600100.1.1.1GE0/0
6.6.6.6 ______
A. RIP
B. RIP
C. Cost
D.
Answer:A

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20. MSR RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPFArea0 RTB
RTC RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 IP 192.168.3.2/24 192.168.4.2/24 RTA
[MSR-ospf-1]area0.0.0.0[MSR-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.00.0.3.255[MSR-GigabitEthernet0/0]
ospfcost2[MSR-GigabitEthernet1/0]ospfdr-priority0
_____
A. MSR GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPF
B. MSR GE0/0 OSPF
C.RTA GE DRD.RTA GE DRE.
GE0/0 Cost OSPF
Answer:BDE

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21. GigabitEthernet0/0 HostA IP 192.168.0.2/24
Serial6/0 ACL
firewallenablefirewalldefaultpermitaclnumber3003rule0permittcprule5permiticmpaclnumber2003rule0den
ysource192.168.0.00.0.0.255inerfaceGigabitEthernet0/0firewallpacket-filter3003inboundfirewallpacket-filt
er2003outboundipaddress192.168.0.1255.255.255.0interfaceSerial6/0link-protocolppp
ipaddress6.6.6.2255.255.255.0
______
A.HostA ping
B.HostA ping 6.6.6.2 ping 192.168.0.1C.HostA ping 192.168.0.1
ping 6.6.6.2D.HostA Telnet
Answer:CD

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22. RTA NAT
[RTA]aclnumber2000[RTA-acl-basic-2000]rule0permitsource10.0.0.00.0.0.255[RTA-acl-basic-2000]natad
dress-group1200.76.28.11200.76.28.11[RTA]interfaceEthernet0/1[RTA-Ethernet0/1]natoutbound2000add
ress-group1
Client_A Client_B Server RTA NAT ______
A.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102

NO.2 PN:0,status:NOPAT,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512
VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
B.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102
4VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1212288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
C.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1212289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
D.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51Answer:D

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23. 2Mbps
______
A. V.24
B. RTA baudrate2048000
C. RTB baudrate2048000
D. RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
E. RTA bandrate2048000 RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
Answer:B

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24. ISDNDCC MSR dialer-rule
[MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000
A. ACL3000
B. ACL3000
C. permit deny
D. [MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000permit
Answer:A

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25. MSR RTA RTB Serial1/0
RTA
[RouterA-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf[RouterA-Serial1/0]ipaddress10.1.1.130[RouterA-Seria11/0]frmapip1
0.1.1.230RTB
[RouterB-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf
[RouterB-Serial1/0]interfaceserial0/0.1[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]ipaddress10.1.1.230[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]frm
apip10.1.1.130
______
A. DLCI RTA ping RTBB. RTA ping 10.1.1.2C. RTA
ping 10.1.1.2D. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2E. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2Answer:BD26. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AB

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27. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:CD

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28. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AC

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29. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BD

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30. delay
______
A. propagationdelay
B. switchingdelay
C. accessdelay
D. queuingdelay
Answer:ABCD

H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190

NO.3 OSI ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:A

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NO.4 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BC

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Exam Code: FCNSA.v5
Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Network Security Administrator (FCNSA.v5))
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which statement is correct regarding virus scanning on a FortiGate unit?
A. Virus scanning is enabled by default.
B. Fortinet Customer Support enables virus scanning remotely for you.
C. Virus scanning must be enabled in a UTM security profile and the UTM security profile must be
assigned to a firewall policy.
D. Enabling virus scanning in a UTM security profile enables virus scanning for all traffic flowing
through the FortiGate device.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following antivirus and attack definition update options are supported by
FortiGate units? (Select all that apply.)
A. Manual update by downloading the signatures from the support site.
B. Pull updates from the FortiGate device
C. Push updates from the FortiGuard Distribution Network.
D. "update-AV/AS" command from the CLI
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 When firewall policy authentication is enabled, only traffic on supported protocols will trigger
an authentication challenge.
Select all supported protocols from the following:
A. SMTP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. FTP
E. SCP
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as simple text, wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit updates banned words on a periodic basis.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 How is traffic routed onto an SSL VPN tunnel from the FortiGate unit side?
A. A static route must be configured by the administrator using the ssl.root interface as the outgoing
interface.
B. Assignment of an IP address to the client causes a host route to be added to the FortiGate unit's
kernel routing table.
C. A route back to the SSLVPN IP pool is automatically created on the FortiGate unit.
D. The FortiGate unit adds a route based upon the destination address in the SSL VPN firewall policy.
Answer: B

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6. In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel
between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support
this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the FortiGate units to allow users access to the IPSec
VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the
remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate device using SSL VPN in web-only mode.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-time environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a
web-only mode SSL VPN.
Answer: C

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8. A FortiGate AntiVirus profile can be configured to scan for viruses on SMTP , FTP , POP3, and
SMB protocols using which inspection mode?
A. Proxy
B. DNS
C. Flow-based
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: C

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9. Which of the following statements are correct regarding URL filtering on the FortiGate unit?
(Select all that apply.)
A. The allowed actions for URL Filtering include Allow, Block and Exempt.
B. The allowed actions for URL Filtering are Allow and Block.
C. The FortiGate unit can filter URLs based on patterns using text and regular expressions.
D. Any URL accessible by a web browser can be blocked using URL Filtering.
E. Multiple URL Filter lists can be added to a single protection profile.
Answer: A,C

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10. An administrator wants to assign a set of UTM features to a group of users.
Which of the following is the correct method for doing this?
A. Enable a set of unique UTM profiles under "Edit User Group".
B. The administrator must enable the UTM profiles in an identity-based policy applicable to the user
group.
C. When defining the UTM objects, the administrator must list the user groups which will use the
UTM object.
D. The administrator must apply the UTM features directly to a user object.
Answer: B

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11. An end user logs into the full-access SSL VPN portal and selects the Tunnel Mode option by
clicking on the "Connect" button. The administrator has enabled split tunneling.
Given that the user authenticates against the SSL VPN policy shown in the image below, which
statement below identifies the route that is added to the client's routing table.
A. A route to destination matching the 'WIN2K3' address object.
B. A route to the destination matching the 'all' address object.
C. A default route.
D. No route is added.
Answer: A

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12. A client can establish a secure connection to a corporate network using SSL VPN in tunnel
mode.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of tunnel mode SSL VPN? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Split tunneling can be enabled when using tunnel mode SSL VPN.
B. Client software is required to be able to use a tunnel mode SSL VPN.
C. Users attempting to create a tunnel mode SSL VPN connection must be authenticated by at least
one SSL VPN policy.
D. The source IP address used by the client for the tunnel mode SSL VPN is assigned by the FortiGate
unit.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: EX0-105
Exam Name: EXIN (Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002 )
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The company Midwest Insurance has taken many measures to protect its information. It uses an
Information Security Management System, the input and output of data in applications is validated,
confidential documents are sent in encrypted form and staff use tokens to access information systems.
Which of these is not a technical measure?
A.Information Security Management System
B.The use of tokens to gain access to information systems
C.Validation of input and output data in applications
D.Encryption of information
Answer:A

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NO.2 What physical security measure is necessary to control access to company information?
A.Air-conditioning
B.Username and password
C.The use of break-resistant glass and doors with the right locks, frames and hinges
D.Prohibiting the use of USB sticks
Answer:C

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NO.3 Who is authorized to change the classification of a document?
A.The author of the document
B.The administrator of the document
C.The owner of the document
D.The manager of the owner of the document
Answer:C

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NO.4 Why do organizations have an information security policy?
A.In order to demonstrate the operation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle within an organization.
B.In order to ensure that staff do not break any laws.
C.In order to give direction to how information security is set up within an organization.
D.In order to ensure that everyone knows who is responsible for carrying out the backup procedures.
Answer:C

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NO.5 What is an example of a physical security measure?
A.A code of conduct that requires staff to adhere to the clear desk policy, ensuring that confidential
information is not left visibly on the desk at the end of the work day
B.An access control policy with passes that have to be worn visibly
C.The encryption of confidential information
D.Special fire extinguishers with inert gas, such as Argon
Answer:D

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NO.6 You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to
make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read
their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail
facilities be best regulated?
A.Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments in
e-mails
B.Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and obligations of
both the employer and staff are set down
C.Implementing privacy regulations
D.Installing a virus scanner
Answer:B

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NO.7 Your organization has an office with space for 25 workstations. These workstations are all fully
equipped and in use. Due to a reorganization 10 extra workstations are added, 5 of which are used for a
call centre 24 hours per day. Five workstations must always be available. What physical security
measures must be taken in order to ensure this?
A.Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. You would therefore have spare equipment that can
be used to replace any non-functioning equipment.
B.Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. Ensure that there are security personnel both in the
evenings and at night, so that staff can work there safely and securely.
C.Obtain an extra office and connect all 10 new workstations to an emergency power supply and UPS
(Uninterruptible Power Supply). Adjust the access control system to the working hours of the new staff.
Inform the building security personnel that work will also be carried out in the evenings and at night.
D.Obtain an extra office and provide a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) for the five most important
workstations.
Answer:C

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NO.8 You work in the IT department of a medium-sized company. Confidential information has got into the
wrong hands several times. This has hurt the image of the company. You have been asked to propose
organizational security measures for laptops at your company. What is the first step that you should take?
A.Formulate a policy regarding mobile media (PDAs, laptops, smartphones, USB sticks)
B.Appoint security personnel
C.Encrypt the hard drives of laptops and USB sticks
D.Set up an access control policy
Answer:A

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NO.9 You work for a large organization. You notice that you have access to confidential information that you
should not be able to access in your position. You report this security incident to the helpdesk. The
incident cycle isinitiated. What are the stages of the security incident cycle?
A.Threat, Damage, Incident, Recovery
B.Threat, Damage, Recovery, Incident
C.Threat, Incident, Damage, Recovery
D.Threat, Recovery, Incident, Damage
Answer:C

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NO.10 Why is air-conditioning placed in the server room?
A.In the server room the air has to be cooled and the heat produced by the equipment has to be extracted.
The air in the room is also dehumidified and filtered.
B.When a company wishes to cool its offices, the server room is the best place. This way, no office space
needs to be sacrificed for such a large piece of equipment.
C.It is not pleasant for the maintenance staff to have to work in a server room that is too warm.
D.Backup tapes are made from thin plastic which cannot withstand high temperatures. Therefore, if it gets
too hot in a server room, they may get damaged.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: EX0-104
Exam Name: EXIN (TMap Next Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional
and non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.1 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If you
have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24, allowing
root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.4 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical
and Environmental Security.?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.7 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all Start regedit.exe Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.8 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind
of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.9 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to unarchiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.13 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.14 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.15 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the
following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing
Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.18 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.19 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: B,C

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NO.21 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented
in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and
forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why
(or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.22 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.23 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous
Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: D,E

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NO.24 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in
thecomputer.
What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.25 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.26 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.27 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.28 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information
that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the
information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.29 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.30 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network
andcomputers.
Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e whichof the
following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.2 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.8 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure.?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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